[Jun-2022] CCSP PDF Dumps Extremely Quick Way Of Preparation [Q352-Q372]

[Jun-2022] CCSP PDF Dumps Extremely Quick Way Of Preparation

Download CCSP Dumps (2022) – Free PDF Exam Demo

ISC CCSP candidate can face following threats

His academic background is limited since he is an IT professional and not a teacher or a trainer.
The candidate was highly recommended by an employer and therefore likely to be more responsive to his/her opinion as compared to other parties.
There are other eLearning programs in the market and this could hinder the candidate’s credibility and credibility in future jobs.
His comments have a negative effect on the candidate’s credibility.
The outcome would not be good if he does not manage to present himself as an IT professional with good skills who can teach eLearning courses in the Applied IT region.

Cloud Concepts, Design, & Architecture (17%):

• Understand the principles of design of secure Cloud computing – This one focuses on the skills related to the Cloud secure data lifecycle, functional security prerequisites, cost-benefit analysis, Cloud-based disaster recovery & business continuity planning, and security considerations for various Cloud categories;
• Understand the concepts of security that are appropriate for Cloud computing – This domain covers the skills in cryptography & key management, network security, common threats, virtualization security, access control, and media & data sanitization;
• Measure the Cloud service providers – This section requires your understanding of system & subsystem product certifications and verification against prerequisites.
• Understand the concept of Cloud computing – This area requires the skills in the Cloud computing definitions, core characteristics of Cloud computing, Cloud computing roles, and building block technologies;
• Explain the Cloud Reference Architecture – The candidates should develop an understanding of the Cloud computing activities, Cloud shared considerations, Cloud service categories, Cloud service capabilities, Cloud deployment models, and the effect of the associated technologies;

Q352. In application-level encryption, where does the encryption engine reside?
Response:

 In the application accessing the database

 In the OS on which the application is run

 Within the database accessed by the application

 In the volume where the database resides

Q353. What are the six components that make up the STRIDE threat model?

 Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Denial of Service, and Elevation of Privilege

 Spoofing, Tampering, Non-Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Denial of Service, and Elevation of Privilege

 Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Distributed Denial of Service, and Elevation of Privilege

 Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Denial of Service, and Social Engineering

Q354. Legal controls refer to which of the following?

 ISO 27001

 PCI DSS

 NIST 800-53r4

 Controls designed to comply with laws and regulations related to the cloud environment

Legal controls are those controls that are designed to comply with laws and regulations whether they be local or international.

Q355. Which kind of SSAE audit reviews controls dealing with the organization’s controls for assuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data?
Response:

 SOC 1

 SOC 2

 SOC 3

 SOC 4

Q356. What type of masking strategy involves making a separate and distinct copy of data with masking in place?

 Dynamic

 Replication

 Static

 Duplication

With static masking, a separate and distinct copy of the data set is created with masking in place.
This is typically done through a script or other process that takes a standard data set, processes it to mask the appropriate and predefined fields, and then outputs the data set as a new one with the completed masking done.

Q357. All of the following methods can be used to attenuate the harm caused by escalation of privilege except:

 Extensive access control and authentication tools and techniques

 Analysis and review of all log data by trained, skilled personnel on a frequent basis

 Periodic and effective use of cryptographic sanitization tools

 The use of automated analysis tools such as SIM, SIEM, and SEM solutions

Q358. What is one of the benefits of implementing an egress monitoring solution?
Response:

 Preventing DDoS attacks

 Inventorying data assets

 Interviewing data owners

 Protecting against natural disasters

Q359. Unlike SOC Type 1 reports, which are based on a specific point in time, SOC Type 2 reports are done over a period of time. What is the minimum span of time for a SOC Type 2 report?

 Six months

 One month

 One year

 One week

SOC Type 2 reports are focused on the same policies and procedures, as well as their effectiveness, as SOC Type 1 reports, but are evaluated over a period of at least six consecutive months, rather than a finite point in time.

Q360. For optimal security, trust zones are used for network segmentation and isolation. They allow for the separation of various systems and tiers, each with its own security level.
Which of the following is typically used to allow administrative personnel access to trust zones?

 IPSec

 SSH

 VPN

 TLS

Virtual private networks (VPNs) are used to provide administrative personnel with secure communication channels through security systems and into trust zones. They allow staff who perform system administration tasks to have access to ports and systems that are not allowed from the public Internet.
IPSec is an encryption protocol for point-to-point communications at the network level, and may be used within a trust zone but not to give access into a trust zone. TLS enables encryption of communications between systems and services and would likely be used to secure the VPN communications, but it does not represent the overall concept being asked for in the question. SSH allows for secure shell access to systems, but not for general access into trust zones.

Q361. Which of the following could be used as a second component of multifactor authentication if a user has an RSA token?

 Access card

 USB thumb drive

 Retina scan

 RFID

A retina scan could be used in conjunction with an RSA token because it is a biometric factor, and thus a different type of factor. An access card, RFID, and USB thumb drive are all items in possession of a user, the same as an RSA token, and as such would not be appropriate.

Q362. TLS provides and ________ for ________ communications.

 Privacy, security

 Security, optimization

 Privacy, integrity

 Enhancement, privacy

Q363. Firewalls can detect attack traffic by using all these methods except ____________.

 Known past behavior in the environment

 Identity of the malicious user

 Point of origination

 Signature matching

Q364. Which of the following service capabilities gives the cloud customer the least amount of control over configurations and deployments?

 Platform

 Infrastructure

 Software

 Desktop

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The software service capability gives the cloud customer a fully established application, where only minimal user configuration options are allowed.

Q365. Which of the following jurisdictions lacks a comprehensive national policy on data privacy and the protection of personally identifiable information (PII)?

 European Union

 Asian-Pacific Economic Cooperation

 United States

 Russia

The United States has a myriad of regulations focused on specific types of data, such as healthcare and financial, but lacks an overall comprehensive privacy law on the national level. The European Union, the Asian- Pacific Economic Cooperation, and Russia all have national privacy protections and regulations for the handling the PII data of their citizens.

Q366. Which of the following data sanitation methods would be the MOST effective if you needed to securely remove data as quickly as possible in a cloud environment?

 Zeroing

 Cryptographic erasure

 Overwriting

 Degaussing

Q367. Setting thermostat controls by measuring the temperature will result in the ________ highest energy costs.
Response:

 Server inlet

 Return air

 Under-floor

 External ambient

Q368. Which of the following is NOT a domain of the Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM)?

 Data center security

 Human resources

 Mobile security

 Budgetary and cost controls

Explanation
Budgetary and cost controls is not one of the domains outlined in the CCM.

Q369. All of the following are techniques to enhance the portability of cloud data, in order to minimize the potential of vendor lock-in except:

 Ensure there are no physical limitations to moving

 Use DRM and DLP solutions widely throughout the cloud operation

 Ensure favorable contract terms to support portability

 Avoid proprietary data formats

DRM and DLP are used for increased authentication/access control and egress monitoring, respectively, and would actually decrease portability instead of enhancing it.

Q370. Which of the following management risks can make an organization’s cloud environment unviable?
Response:

 Insider trading

 VM sprawl

 Hostile takeover

 Improper personnel selection

Q371. If a key feature of cloud computing that your organization desires is the ability to scale and expand without limit or concern about available resources, which cloud deployment model would you MOST likely be considering?

 Public

 Hybrid

 Private

 Community

Public clouds, such as AWS and Azure, are massive systems run by major corporations, and they account for a significant share of Internet traffic and services. They are always expanding, offer enormous resources to customers, and are the least likely to run into resource constraints compared to the other deployment models. Private clouds would likely have the resources available for specific uses and could not be assumed to have a large pool of resources available for expansion. A community cloud would have the same issues as a private cloud, being targeted to similar organizations. A hybrid cloud, because it spans multiple clouds, would not fit the bill either, without the use of individual cloud models.

Q372. The European Union is often considered the world leader in regard to the privacy of personal data and has declared privacy to be a “human right.” In what year did the EU first assert this principle?

 1995

 2000

 2010

 1999

The EU passed Directive 95/46 EC in 1995, which established data privacy as a human right. The other years listed are incorrect.

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What are the common mistakes done by the ISC CCSP certification exam candidate?

Many errors are made by the candidate during the exam. Some of these will result in a failed exam and others will not be noticed by the ISC. The following are some common errors observed by the CCSP Dumps, that could cost you certification:

• Inexperienced Candidate
• Studying with a partner: This is not recommended as you will not benefit from the hours your partner spends studying. It is very likely that during a timed exam your partner will be distracted by other preparations, and you will suffer because of it. If you do decide to study with someone, it is recommended that only one person takes the exam and the other does not have access to an Internet connection throughout your review period: There’s no excuse for paying for, renting, or buying the internet connection required during your timeframe.
• Not doing a full-length regular practice test before starting to study: You must take at least one full-length practice test before starting to study for this exam.
• No previous experience of certifications can be accepted as an excuse for admitting your result in this exam. With no prior record, it is very unlikely that you will pass this exam regardless of how well-prepared you may be for other exams.
• Not taking enough time off before beginning to study: You must take at least 4 weeks off from work prior to beginning ready for this exam.

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