[Q253-Q270] View CCSP Exam Question Dumps With Latest Demo [Feb 02, 2023]

View CCSP Exam Question Dumps With Latest Demo [Feb 02, 2023]

Free CCSP Test Questions Real Practice Test Questions

Cloud Security Operations (17%):

• Implement the operational standards and control, which include change management, incident management, continuity management, problem management, release management, capacity management, configuration management, and service level management, among others;
• Support digital forensics;
• Build & implement the logical and physical infrastructure for the Cloud environment;
• Manage security operations.
• Manage communication with the appropriate parties;

ISC CCSP Practice Test Questions, ISC CCSP Exam Practice Test Questions

This certification is ideal for the information security and IT leaders looking to validate their knowledge of cybersecurity and securing the organization’s critical assets within Cloud. The candidates for the (ISC)2 CSSP certificate demonstrate their advanced knowledge and technical skills in designing, securing, and managing data, infrastructure, and applications in Cloud by taking the qualifying exam.

Format of ISC CCSP certification exam:

ICS CCSP exam’s Format is as follows. There are 06 domains you have to prepare for solving your CCSP exam:

Domain 01- Cloud Concepts, Design and Architecture

• Understand Security Concepts Relevant to Cloud Computing
• Should know ho to Design Principles of Secure Cloud Computing
• Evaluate Cloud Service Providers
• Describe Cloud Reference Architecture
• Understanding of Cloud Computing Concepts

Domain 02- Cloud Data Security

• Describe Cloud Data Concepts
• Design and Implement Auditability, Traceability, and Accountability of Data Events
• Design and Implement Information Rights Management (IRM)
• Plan and Implement Data Retention, Deletion, and Archiving Policies
• Design and Implement Cloud Data Storage Architectures
• Implement Data Discovery

Domain 03- Cloud Platform and Infrastructure Security

• Plan Disaster Recovery (DR) and business continuity (BC)
• Comprehend Cloud Infrastructure Components
• Design and Plan Security Controls
• Analyze Risks Associated with Cloud Infrastructure
• Design a Secure Data Center

Domain 04- Cloud Application Security

• Design Appropriate Identity and Access Management (IAM) Solutions
• Use Verified Secure Software
• Apply Cloud Software Assurance and Validation
• Describe the Secure Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC)
• Comprehend the Specifics of Cloud Application Architecture

Domain 05- Cloud Security Operations

• Implement Operational Controls and Standards
• Manage Communication with Relevant Parties
• Support Digital Forensics
• Operate Physical and Logical Infrastructure for Cloud Environment

Domain 06- Legal, Risk, and conformance

• Articulate Legal Requirements and Unique Risks within the Cloud Environment
• Understand Privacy Issues
• Should Know how to Audit, Methodologies, and Required Adaptations for a Cloud Environment
• Understand of Implications of Cloud to Enterprise Risk Management
• Acknowledge the Outsourcing and Cloud Contract Design

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QUESTION 253
Cryptographic keys should be secured ________________ .

 To a level at least as high as the data they can decrypt

 In vaults

 With two-person integrity

 By armed guards

The physical security of crypto keys is of some concern, but guards or vaults are not always necessary. Two- person integrity might be a good practice for protecting keys. The best answer to this question is option A, because it is always true, whereas the remaining options depend on circumstances.

QUESTION 254
Many different common threats exist against web-exposed services and applications. One attack involves attempting to leverage input fields to execute queries in a nested fashion that is unintended by the developers.
What type of attack is this?

 Injection

 Missing function-level access control

 Cross-site scripting

 Cross-site request forgery

Explanation
An injection attack is where a malicious actor sends commands or other arbitrary data through input and data fields with the intent of having the application or system execute the code as part of its normal processing and queries. This can trick an application into exposing data that is not intended or authorized to be exposed, or it can potentially allow an attacker to gain insight into configurations or security controls. Missing function-level access control exists where an application only checks for authorization during the initial login process and does not further validate with each function call. Cross-site request forgery occurs when an attack forces an authenticated user to send forged requests to an application running under their own access and credentials.
Cross-site scripting occurs when an attacker is able to send untrusted data to a user’s browser without going through validation processes.

QUESTION 255
What concept does the “T” represent in the STRIDE threat model?

 TLS

 Testing

 Tampering with data

 Transport

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation
Any application that sends data to the user will face the potential that the user could manipulate or alter the data, whether it resides in cookies, GET or POST commands, or headers, or manipulates client-side validations. If the user receives data from the application, it is crucial that the application validate and verify any data that is received back from the user.

QUESTION 256
What type of PII is controlled based on laws and carries legal penalties for noncompliance with requirements?

 Contractual

 Regulated

 Specific

 Jurisdictional

Regulated PII involves those requirements put forth by specific laws or regulations, and unlike contractual PII, where a violation can lead to contractual penalties, a violation of regulated PII can lead to fines or even criminal charges in some jurisdictions. PII regulations can depend on either the jurisdiction that applies to the hosting location or application or specific legislation based on the industry or type of data used.

QUESTION 257
What is the experimental technology that might lead to the possibility of processing encrypted data without having to decrypt it first?

 AES

 Link encryption

 Homomorphic encryption

 One-time pads

QUESTION 258
Which of the following threat types can occur when baselines are not appropriately applied or when unauthorized changes are made?

 Security misconfiguration

 Insecure direct object references

 Unvalidated redirects and forwards

 Sensitive data exposure

Security misconfigurations occur when applications and systems are not properly configured or maintained in a secure manner. This can be due to a shortcoming in security baselines or configurations, unauthorized changes to system configurations, or a failure to patch and upgrade systems as the vendor releases security patches. Insecure direct object references occur when code references aspects of the infrastructure, especially internal or private systems, and an attacker can use that knowledge to glean more information about the infrastructure. Unvalidated redirects and forwards occur when an application has functions to forward users to other sites, and these functions are not properly secured to validate the data and redirect requests, allowing spoofing for malware or phishing attacks. Sensitive data exposure occurs when an application does not use sufficient encryption and other security controls to protect sensitive application data.

QUESTION 259
Which of the following threat types involves an application that does not validate authorization for portions of itself beyond when the user first enters it?

 Cross-site request forgery

 Missing function-level access control

 Injection

 Cross-site scripting

It is imperative that applications do checks when each function or portion of the application is accessed to ensure that the user is properly authorized. Without continual checks each time a function is accessed, an attacker could forge requests to access portions of the application where authorization has not been granted.
An injection attack is where a malicious actor sends commands or other arbitrary data through input and data fields with the intent of having the application or system execute the code as part of its normal processing and queries. Cross-site scripting occurs when an attacker is able to send untrusted data to a user’s browser without going through validation processes. Cross-site request forgery occurs when an attack forces an authenticated user to send forged requests to an application running under their own access and credentials.

QUESTION 260
With a cloud service category where the cloud customer is responsible for deploying all services, systems, and components needed for their applications, which of the following storage types are MOST likely to be available to them?

 Structured and hierarchical

 Volume and object

 Volume and database

 Structured and unstructured

The question is describing the Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) cloud offering, and as such, the volume and object storage types will be available to the customer. Structured and unstructured are storage types associated with PaaS, and although the other answers present similar- sounding storage types, they are a mix of real and fake names.

QUESTION 261
Which component of ITIL involves handling anything that can impact services for either internal or public users?

 Incident management

 Deployment management

 Problem management

 Change management

Explanation
Explanation
Incident management is focused on limiting the impact of disruptions to an organization’s services or operations, as well as returning their state to full operational status as soon as possible. Problem management is focused on identifying and mitigating known problems and deficiencies before they occur. Deployment management is a subcomponent of change management and is where the actual code or configuration change is put into place. Change management involves the processes and procedures that allow an organization to make changes to its IT systems and services in a controlled manner.

QUESTION 262
Which of the following is NOT something that an HIDS will monitor?

 Configurations

 User logins

 Critical system files

 Network traffic

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A host intrusion detection system (HIDS) monitors network traffic as well as critical system files and configurations.

QUESTION 263
Which of the following areas of responsibility would be shared between the cloud customer and cloud provider within the Software as a Service (SaaS) category?

 Data

 Governance

 Application

 Physical

Explanation
With SaaS, the application is a shared responsibility between the cloud provider and cloud customer. Although the cloud provider is responsible for deploying, maintaining, and securing the application, the cloud customer does carry some responsibility for the configuration of users and options. Regardless of the cloud service category used, the physical environment is always the sole responsibility of the cloud provider. With all cloud service categories, the data and governance are always the sole responsibility of the cloud customer.

QUESTION 264
When a data center is configured such that the backs of the devices face each other and the ambient temperature in the work area is cool, it is called ___________.

 Hot aisle containment

 Cold aisle containment

 Thermo-optimized

 HVAC modulated

QUESTION 265
Which of the following statements best describes a Type 1 hypervisor?

 The hypervisor software runs within an operating system tied to the hardware.

 The hypervisor software runs as a client on a server and needs an external service to administer it.

 The hypervisor software runs on top of an application layer.

 The hypervisor software runs directly on “bare metal” without an intermediary.

With a Type 1 hypervisor, the hypervisor software runs directly on top of the bare-metal system, without any intermediary layer or hosting system. None of these statements describes a Type 1 hypervisor.

QUESTION 266
With software-defined networking (SDN), which two types of network operations are segregated to allow for granularity and delegation of administrative access and functions?

 Filtering and forwarding

 Filtering and firewalling

 Firewalling and forwarding

 Forwarding and protocol

With SDN, the filtering and forwarding capabilities and administration are separated. This allows the cloud provider to build interfaces and management tools for administrative delegation of filtering configuration, without having to allow direct access to underlying network equipment. Firewalling and protocols are both terms related to networks, but they are not components SDN is concerned with.

QUESTION 267
Which ITIL component is an ongoing, iterative process of tracking all deployed and configured resources that an organization uses and depends on, whether they are hosted in a traditional data center or a cloud?

 Problem management

 Continuity management

 Availability management

 Configuration management

Configuration management tracks and maintains detailed information about all IT components within an organization. Availability management is focused on making sure system resources, processes, personnel, and toolsets are properly allocated and secured to meet SLA requirements. Continuity management (or business continuity management) is focused on planning for the successful restoration of systems or services after an unexpected outage, incident, or disaster. Problem management is focused on identifying and mitigating known problems and deficiencies before they occur.

QUESTION 268
A main objective for an organization when utilizing cloud services is to avoid vendor lock-in so as to ensure flexibility and maintain independence.
Which core concept of cloud computing is most related to vendor lock-in?

 Scalability

 Interoperability

 Portability

 Reversibility

Portability is the ability for a cloud customer to easily move their systems, services, and applications among different cloud providers. By avoiding reliance on proprietary APIs and other vendor-specific cloud features, an organization can maintain flexibility to move among the various cloud providers with greater ease. Reversibility refers to the ability for a cloud customer to quickly and easy remove all their services and data from a cloud provider. Interoperability is the ability to reuse services and components for other applications and uses.
Scalability refers to the ability of a cloud environment to add or remove resources to meet current demands.

QUESTION 269
Which of the following is NOT a domain of the Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM)?

 Data center security

 Human resources

 Mobile security

 Budgetary and cost controls

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Budgetary and cost controls is not one of the domains outlined in the CCM.

QUESTION 270
Devices in the cloud datacenter should be secure against attack. All the following are means of hardening devices, except:
Response:

 Using a strong password policy

 Removing default passwords

 Strictly limiting physical access

 Removing all admin accounts

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